I read the KJV only, often comparing it to other versions for understanding, but we still need to check out the Greek for clarification. The word “make” is not translated in the phrase in Eph 3:9, “make all men see.”   This is the only instance i could find that makes use of “make” and “see” in Paul’s writings. To split up “make” and “see” in this passages requires some clarification because honestly, we can no more “make” someone see than we can “make” them believe. The word “make” in and of itself can be an ear-stopper for many people.

I get what the author is trying to say, but i think he should have included the Greek in his explanation, especially since his whole point is to “make” someone see. His last two sentences sound almost like he is coming up with something you can put on a t-shirt. Is he considered a teacher or just a writer?